Quote:
Originally Posted by Mark T. DeNucci, Sr.
By rule, in both (1) and (2) the FGA does not count and we award two FTs. But the foul in (2) and always bothered me because A1 traveled not of his own volition as in (1) but because of B1's foul and CM does not allow for any distinction between the two.
Just some food for thought.
MTD, Sr.
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I think it would become awfully hard (and controversial) for refs to have to decide if the travel was "caused" by the foul.