Quote:
Originally Posted by just another ref
If he caught it himself it's not a pass.
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This is true. 4-31.
However, suppose we have a throw-in in which A1 is by himself and just dumps the ball inbounds, and then he himself goes inbounds and is the first to touch the ball. He wasn't passing because he wasn't throwing, batting or rolling the ball to another player, yet we still consider it a violation if he's the first to touch the ball.
So how is it any different if the thrower starts to throw, bat or roll the ball directly into the court, releases it, and is then somehow able to retrieve it before he himself goes inbounds? Where in the rules does it say that the thrower physically going inbounds becomes the difference between violating and not?