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Originally Posted by David Emerling
In your hypothetical situation, implicit was that you would NOT call this batter out. Am I mistaken?
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No.
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You seem to suggest that the batter has, somehow, been unfairly deprived of the opportunity to tie the game.
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Yes. Enforcing the rule (which, in this case, would entail countermanding the spirit and intent of the rule) would do just that.
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You said that the ball hit his bat but you didn't say where the ball went.
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That's because it is irrelevant to the question I asked.
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If you ignore the fact that his foot was completely outside the batter's box and the ball goes fair and the tying run scores - then what?
What's the mechanic for that? It's your question!
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Uh, point it fair. Then the next batter comes up.