Peter, the book is quite clear that if a batted ball strikes the batter while in the box it should be called a foul ball. I'm sure we don't disagree there.
Still, the rulebooks all indicate that when one foot entirely out of the box, the batter is considered outside the box. Of course, this reference comes from sections regarding the batter
while striking the ball and not running to 1B. While I felt I once stumbled across a similar reference related to a batter leaving the box
after having struck the ball, I was unable to locate it when I specifically searched for it.
IMO, running into a ball is different than being struck with a batted ball as it immediately comes off the bat. With that said, I don't personally believe that a batter should be entitled to run into his own batted ball over fair territory. He needs to be cognizant of where that batted ball went---if only downward to the plate---before he starts running into his own batted ball. Once he starts toward 1B and puts that foot totally outside the box, he better not run into a ball when I'm PU. My call will be the same as your partner's. I believe that call was also made in an MLB game this spring where the batter was declared out with his trail foot still in the box. It was discussed somewhere in a thread.
On June 18th I questioned the WUA on it as follows:
While it's understood that a ball striking the batter while in the batter's box should be a foul ball, exactly when is the batter considered out of the batter's box should his batted ball strike him, or should he run into a batted ball?
On hit and run the batter reaches for an outside pitch, striking it with his foot in the air. His lead foot lands totally in front of the plate and is struck totally outside the box while his trail foot is still planted in the box.
(2) Batter bunts the ball which strikes the plate and rebounds straight upward (fair)as the batter begins to leave the box. The batter has planted one foot outside the box but still has his trail foot on the ground inside the box.
Is this batter out, or is this a foul ball?
And the WUA response is:
If the ball goes down and immediately strikes the batter, or bounces and comes up and immediately strikes the batter or his bat, it is a foul ball only and not interference. If the batter-runner takes a step and then touches a fair ball (contact is not immediate) then it is probably interference, though one would have to see the play [my emphasis]. It is a judgment call. Generally, if the batter runner is still in the box and had no chance to avoid the ball it is ruled foul. If he leaves the box he is at risk for interference, of course.
Thanks for your inquiry!
World Umpires Association
Certainly Roder supplies no definitive ruling on a batter being considered outside the box merely because one foot lands outside the box while the other foot remains in, but he certainly suggests that it would likely be interference (since it's illegal to strike the ball with a foot outside the box and, thus,
the batter would most likely have to take a step to be outside the box). But to answer your question, it's obviously not a wrong call merely because the batter's trail foot is still in the box---as you and many others seem to state.
If I believe the runner ran into the ball over fair territory after stepping out of the box, then I have interfrence. If I judge that the ball went toward the batter and struck him before his attempt to run, I'm likely ruling it a foul ball. I suspect your partner judged that the batter had left the box and ran into his own fair ball, however close to the plate that may have been. If that's his judgment, then it's likely the proper interpretation by calling him out.
Just my opinion,
Freix
[Edited by Bfair on Jun 25th, 2003 at 02:34 PM]