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Old Mon Feb 10, 2014, 09:56am
MD Longhorn MD Longhorn is offline
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Join Date: Sep 2003
Location: Katy, Texas
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Originally Posted by strike4 View Post
Here is the new scenario:

R1 on 1B and leaves at the release of the pitch. B2 hits a ground ball that touches F1 glove and then hits R1 while sliding toward 2B. F4 stops just prior to running into R1 who is between her and the deflected ball. F4 would have caught the ball and tagged 2B for an out if the ball had not hit R1. Is this interference and R1 out? Would it have been interference if F4 had not stopped and ran into R1 while trying to get to the ball?
Given that the ball hit the runner - the fielder stopping is nothing - they had no ball to play. (See interception and catchable ball nonsense on the Gronkowski play... )

Question to the peanut gallery on Strike's follow up question --- if the ball hit R1, and then R1 and F4 collide... don't we have obstruction (and likely a quite pissed off coach!)?
I was thinking of the immortal words of Socrates, who said, 'I drank what?'

West Houston Mike
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