Quote:
Originally Posted by jicecone
David, that is not a true statement. He would NOT be allowed to pitch to the batter because he would be in violation of "failing to pitch to the batter in a continous motion immediately after any movement of any part of the body...........". NOT because he's no longer legally engaged with the rubber - even though he is still in contact with the rubber."
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Then let me ask you this: With runners at 1st and 2nd - if the pitcher faked to 2nd but did not break contact with the rubber - and then he turned to throw to 1st - would you apply the same criteria as you would in the 3rd-to-1st maneuver and balk him? [FED]
Not arguing - just asking.