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Originally Posted by Manny A
It would. But it would not be immediate, which is what Steve suggests as one criterion to decide who makes the call.
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I guess that would depend on how you define immediate.
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I see no real difference between this play, and the play where a looper falls in short left and F6 retrieves and throws the ball to third to force R1. But maybe it's just me. 
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I do. This play is in the infield, Steve's is not.
Think of the reason why the BU has the first play in the infield. Is it because they are the base umpire and the play is at a base? Of course, not. It is because that due to the PU duties, priorities and possible "immediate" access to and view of the play may be more limited than that of the BU.