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Old Tue Mar 12, 2013, 11:53am
Manny A Manny A is offline
Stirrer of the Pot
 
Join Date: Aug 2000
Location: Lowcountry, SC
Posts: 2,380
Quote:
Originally Posted by AtlUmpSteve View Post
OK. R1 on 1st with two outs, and B4 hits a pop to left field that is dropped. Or hits a seeing eye single through the infield. Who has third?

Why do you see your play as anything different? Two umpires, two runners, one headed to third with no "initial" infield play remaining. Does that sound better than a "first" play?
Your other two examples I understand why the PU would take third. And it makes sense that the PU would take the call in the OP play. I guess I'm just overthinking this "first play by an infielder" philosophy.
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