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Old Tue Mar 12, 2013, 10:32am
AtlUmpSteve AtlUmpSteve is offline
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Join Date: Aug 2004
Location: Woodstock, GA; Atlanta area
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Manny A View Post
Really? Even if there was no chance for a play?

R1, in this case, had already rounded second and was on her way to third when F4 picked up the ball. There was no possible way for a play to take place at second unless R1 ended up in a rundown.

I've never heard of treating a "potential play" as an actual play to determine responsibility.
OK. R1 on 1st with two outs, and B4 hits a pop to left field that is dropped. Or hits a seeing eye single through the infield. Who has third?

Why do you see your play as anything different? Two umpires, two runners, one headed to third with no "initial" infield play remaining. Does that sound better than a "first" play?
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