[OKREF]

Originally Posted by jump stop

In my opinion you could use 2 rules to interpret the violation:

1st). Sec44 Art2.b.

. . . A player, who catches the ball while moving or dribbling, may stop, and establish a pivot foot as follows:
.
If one foot is on the floor:
It is the pivot when the other foot touches in a step.
The player may jump off that foot and simultaneously land on both. Neither foot can be a pivot in this case.

2nd) Art. 3. A player who catches the ball while moving or dribbling may stop and establish a pivot foot as follows:
On one foot followed by the other, the first foot to touch shall be the pivot foot; When one foot is on the playing court:


You are correct the word "jump stop" is not in the rule book but this is the move "0" seems to be attempting rather than your typical "layup"
So , as far as breaking the rules he either: 1)didn't land simultaneously or 2) picked up pivot foot and returned to floor before passing or shooting

The real point is why didn't they call a violation: obviously these are 3 primetime officials or they wouldn't be working this game. None called a violation. So I try to get into the mind of why these high level officials only call this move a travel 1/100 times. I think it is because they question when the ball was gathered and don't split hairs on landing simultaneously.

So, like it or not , they typically let this go. Peyton Sive from Louisville will make this move 5 or 6 times a game and rarely does he land simultaneously.

Our association has told us that no matter when the ball is gathered, either before jumping or after jumping, it is a travel if they don't land simultaneously.