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Old Sun May 20, 2012, 09:27pm
KJUmp KJUmp is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by RKBUmp View Post
It appears F4 muffed the play on the ball prior to the contact, hence the non interference call. Now the question is, why didnt the umpire now rule obstruction on F4? The fielder was not in posession of the ball, was no longer making a play on the ball and definitely hindered the runner.
In U1's judgement, he felt that it was a wreck, and gave the appropriate signal.

IMO, watched the replay numerous times....wreck? possible; INF? possible; OBS? no.
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