[Robert Goodman]

I just thought of something I don't know why never occurred to me before. In almost all cases, the maker of a forward pass is an eligible receiver. If he wants to make an intentional incomplete pass, why doesn't he just barely push the ball forward out of one hand and then bat it down with the other? And if he's immediately hit so that he's unable to get to the ball for that swat with the other hand, rapid though the action would be, can't it be said (and established by his previous practice) that there was an eligible receiver in the area he was trying to throw it to, namely himself?