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Old Sun Dec 05, 1999, 10:56am
ken roberts ken roberts is offline
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Join Date: Oct 1999
Posts: 83
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Ken,
I think ... you probably meant to imply that the ball must be in the back court for it to be a violation eventhough the rule didn't say specifically?


Nope. I actually meant the opposite. Rule 9-9: "A player shall not be the first to touch a ball which is in team control after it has been in the frontcourt, if he or she or a teammate last touched or was touched by the ball in the frontcourt before it went to the backcourt."

So even if the ball goes to the backcourt and somehow re-attains frontcourt status without being touched, and then gets touched by Team A in the frontcourt, it will be a still violation since the play does fulfill the "went to the backcourt" criterion.

Of course, in 99.99+% of backcourt violations, the ball will have backcourt status when touched...i was just pointing out that it was possible to have a violation while the ball has frontcourt status...
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