[Raymond]

Originally Posted by just another ref

My hang up is that the discussion went from "the contact was/wasn't sufficient to affect the play and justify a foul call" to "cuz Dad said so."

Somebody important once posted the interpretation that when B1 tips the ball into the backcourt and A1 catches it without allowing it to first hit the floor that it is a violation.

A lot of us still haven't accepted that one.

That's a rules debate concerning the misapplication and misinterpretation of said rule.

This discussion is about judgement. You would think you'd be able to distinguish between the two.