[Tru_in_Blu]

As a creative former player/coach, I'm now even considering if the run would score had there been two outs. Because of the interference by R2, I'm thinking BR is still awarded 1B and credited with a hit.

I recall a play I had last season w/ R1 on third, R2 on second and 2 outs. Batter hits a routine grounder to F6 who fields it cleanly. Had he simply thrown to 1B, the BR would have been retired easily [assuming no muff by F3]. But R2 ran very close to F6, but not past him. For some reason, F6 then decided to take the "easy out" right in front of him by tagging R2. But R2 had baited him and headed back to second base. There was a resulting rundown and R2 was eventually tagged out, but long after R1 had crossed home. So score that run. BR did reach 1B because of the rundown.

Can the same logic be applied to our OP with 2 outs?

If this is such a great play, why don't we ever see it? How has ASA covered their collective bases on this one?