If shot happens after the buzzer but no one is there to see it, did it actually happen?
Apparently - yes since he is shooting free throws due to a foul in the act of shooting. I know "act" is the key word... The start of the motion dictates the ability of the foul call but the ball must leave the hand for the shot to be considered capable of scoring. It's still a weird ruling even if it makes complete sense
Did I summarize that right?