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Old Sat Apr 23, 2011, 11:19am
mbyron mbyron is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by UmpTTS43 View Post
If the batter had an 0-2 count would you allow an advance on a D3K where the ball gets away?

Not sure whom you were asking, but no. As you know, the advance did not occur during the improper batter's time at bat, which any allowable advance would have to do.

But one might think that the rule should be built around distinguishing between a runner's advance that's earned by the actions of the improper batter and one that's yielded by the actions of the defense.

One way to understand the rule is that the improper batter has no right to become a runner, and so any advance that occurs while he's a runner should be nullified, even if it's due to a wild pitch or D3K (upon proper appeal, of course).
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