Quote:
Originally posted by tucktheump
Rich,
You are correct if the fielders had a reasonable chance to field the ball and it is determined by the umpire that the interference is intentional. (rule 8-5 k A.R.-2). But what if it is deemed unintentional, or the fielders could not have fielded the ball with a reasonable effort?
|
"Intent" is needed only if the runner interferes with a *fielder*, in the play at hand, the runner interfered with the *ball*.
I agree the answer depends on whether F4 or F6 could reasonably field the ball.