Yes.
Quote:
Originally posted by Viking32
B1 scores a FG. B2 intentionally kicks the ball after A1 releases it on the inbound pass. Does A retain the right to run the baseline?
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If the ball is to be put back at the baseline and no possession was gained before the kick.
Peace
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Let us get into "Good Trouble."
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Charles Michael “Mick” Chambers (1947-2010)
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