Quote:
Originally Posted by SamG
Here's where my brain went (probably incorrectly, but I figure it doesn't hurt to ask)... is there a VALID argument to saying there are TWO plays here? Play 1: passed ball, runner scores. Play 2: DK3.
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Consider this one: R1 on 3B and R2 on 1B with 1 out, BR grounds into a 6-4-3 double play. Two distinct 'plays' were made, but the run does NOT score even if R1 touches home before out #2 (i.e. during the first play).