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Old Wed Sep 08, 2010, 06:40am
mbyron mbyron is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Camron Rust View Post
Keep my full statement (and in context with my statement in the post just prior to the one you quoted) and you'll not disagree. I made it quite clear that a player who could have been OOB with the ball has it at his disposal.
What's odd about the concept of 'availability to the thrower' is that it's disjunctive, depending on the context: it's either about the ball (in ordinary plays) OR about the thrower (in plays where the thrower is delaying).

That complicates the criteria officials must apply when judging whether the ball is available. In one case the criteria involve the ball ACTUALLY being available for a throw-in, but in the other the ball is merely POTENTIALLY available for a throw-in. In the latter case we have to assess whether the player is intentionally or negligently preventing the ball from actually being available.

Hell, I could teach a modal logic class around this case!
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