[bd41flpk]

I just wanted to get a clarification on the rule around the definition of a legal possession of the ball to declare an 'out'? My basic question surrounds the 1st baseman and what is considered 'legal possession' of the ball to determine the 'out'?

Scenario: B/R hits a ground ball to F6 who then throws to F3 for the force and the following scenarios occur (please comment on each):

(1) F3 has possession of the ball in the right hand with the palm of the hand facing down and the ball is on the ground - legal possession? IMHO - No

(2) F3 has the ball lodged in the forearm against the body - legal possession? IMHO - No

(3) F3 has the ball against the body with the glove pressing up against the body with the ball - legal possession? IMHO - Yes

(4) F3 has possession of the ball in the glove hand with the glove facing down and the ball is on the ground - legal possession? IMHO - No

(5) If I have missed any other ares of possession, please feel free to list them in your response?

My need here is of course to determine whether to rule an 'out' as the B/R crosses 1st base and did the ball beat the runner to 1st.

Thanks in advance for the review.