He wasn't being sarcastic--he was trying to point you to the rules basis so that you could figure it out for yourself, which will likely stick with you better than if he had just answered, "No."
Edit: By the way, you didn't mention a rule set, so assuming OBR, this would be rule 4.09a, which I'll quote below:
Quote:
4.09 HOW A TEAM SCORES
(a) One run shall be scored each time a runner legally advances to and touches first, second, third and home base before three men are put out to end the inning.
EXCEPTION: A run is not scored if the runner advances to home base during a play in which the third out is made (1) by the batter-runner before he touches first base; (2) by any runner being forced out; or (3) by a preceding runner who is declared out because he failed to touch one of the bases.
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Your play exactly matches exception #3.