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RULE 2
SECTION 24 FORCE PLAY
ART. 1 . . . A force play is a play in which a runner (or two or three runners) loses the right to the base occupied and is forced to advance because the batter becomes a batter-runner.
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Okay. Can we all agree that a force play exists because of the BOB?
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ART. 2 . . . For a given runner, a force play ends as soon as the runner touches the next base or a following runner is put out.
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If R1 abandons their effort to run, can we agree this does not negate the force play? The force is still in effect. Note that the definition of a Force Play does not require that an out can be made at the base to which the runner is forced, just that the batter became a BR.
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RULE 8
SECTION 1 THE BATTER BECOMES A BATTER-RUNNER
ART. 1 . . . A batter becomes a batter-runner with the right to attempt to score by advancing to first, second and third and then home plate in the listed order when:
c. an intentional base on balls is awarded (S.P.), or a fourth ball is called by
the umpire.
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The batter, by rule, has indeed become a batter-runner.
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RULE 8
SECTION 6 THE RUNNER IS OUT
A runner is out when:
ART. 7 . . . The runner fails to touch the intervening base or bases in regular
or reverse order and the ball is returned to the infield and properly appealed. If the runner put out is the batter-runner at first base, or any other runner forced to advance because the batter became a batter-runner, this is a force out.
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She failed to touch the base. It's an appeal play. It's a force out. It's the 3rd out. No runs can score. That seems pretty plain to me.