Quote:
Originally Posted by UmpJM (nee CoachJM)
GA Umpire,
Under OBR, the batter would only be awarded 1B if the runner interfered with the defense's opportunity to field a fair batted ball.
If the runner interferes with a fielder's opprtunity to catch a foul fly, it is simply a foul ball to the batter.
JM
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I know this thread has passed but I have a quote from Wendelstedt which seems to contradict this statement.
From Wendelstedt:
Quote:
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By the way, this is the same for any fly ball where a runner interferes with a fielder: the runner is out and the batter is awarded first base, regardless of where the ball is touched after the interference, or what would have happened on the play. Again, if you are going to see what would have happened, why not call the batter out as well if the ball is eventually caught?
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Also, from Wendelstedt:
Quote:
We agree that this doesn't seem the most ideal ruling, however, it is hard to call a ball foul when it never becomes foul. We are working though, to provide suggestions to Major League Baseball in ways to correct these issues within the spirit of the rules.
We have made the suggestion that the definitions of fair and foul balls be edited to include that a ball become fair or foul when a batted ball in flight is over fair or foul territory when interference occurs.
This, we believe, would solve the contradictions in the rulebook, and offer a solution that falls within the spirit of the rules.
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It appears in an OBR game that it doesn't matter if the ball is fair/foul. Batter gets 1B on the INT. This would have been my ruling before until this thread. In an OBR game, I am still inclined to call the interfering runner out and send the batter to 1B.
I know what J/R says. Since this appears to be the way MLB is calling the play, I am wondering if JEA has something about it. Mainly b/c I would say it's author is on the same level as Wendelstedt and it would be in writing. If not, I guess the batter gets 1B in my OBR games based on the above quote.