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Originally Posted by rwest
Situation:
Bases loaded. R1 on 3rd; R2 on 2nd; R3 on 1st. B4 hits a ground ball to F4. R3 intentionally interferes with F4 and in the opinion of the umpire was done to prevent a double play.
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How did R3 interfere? Was R3 already out at the time of the INT? This is important as that would take the BR out of the equation.
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Based on 8-7-J the umpire is supposed to rule the trailing runner out. However, we don't have a trailing runner, we have a trailing batter-runner. So you can't use 8-7-J to get B4 out. Not if we are literally interpreting the word "runner" as defined in rule 1.
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If you want to be technical, B4 becomes a runner the moment you kill the ball on the INT call. You cannot send the BR back to the B position, so you must award the BR 1B which, by rule definition, makes that player a runner.
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I don't believe we can use 8-2-K if we don't believe they are attempting to "complete the play on the batter-runner". In this case if F4 appears to be going home for the force out, 8-2-K doesn't apply.
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If you don't believe part of the play included completing a play on the BR, than I don't believe you can apply 8.7.J.Effect.
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So is there a hole in 8-7-J? Can we get two outs on this play and if so, what rule are you using?
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No and yes. See above.