[greymule]

I had the same theoretical situation in an OBR game a few years ago. A runner who had taken a big turn around 1B had to scramble back when a quick throw was made to the bag. He made it to 1B but couldn't stop on the bag and fell about 6 feet into foul territory. The ball got away to the fence, and in advancing to 2B the runner stepped right over 1B. The defense appealed, and I upheld the appeal. A "discussion" naturally ensued, and I held that the runner had retreated "behind" 1B and was required to touch it on the way to 2B. The offense grumbled but accepted that explanation, but I admit I wasn't sure and still am not sure. It just seemed like the right call to me.

The OP reminds me of the play in which the retreating R3 overruns 3B toward left field, and then, as he stands 10 feet past 3B down the LF line, R2 closely approaches 3B but stops 6 inches from the bag. Has R2 "passed" R3? I would say no, yet I would say that R3 still has to touch 3B on his way home.

I think the OP can be argued either way, unless there's a case play or one of the authorities has given an opinion.