Thread: 2 questions
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Old Mon Dec 23, 2002, 01:49pm
Jurassic Referee Jurassic Referee is offline
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Join Date: Aug 2001
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Quote:
Originally posted by Nevadaref
[/B]
Therefore, if the player has the ball and the official judges the contact to not be intentional or flagrant, it is a player-control foul which is a common foul.
If the player does not have the ball, I believe that the rule demands the call be intentional or flagrant as there is no other choice.

[/B][/QUOTE]Nevada,this is your direct quote above.

Your first statement is correct.

Your second statement is wrong. If the official judges the contact by a player without the ball to not be intentional or flagrant(similar to your first sentence),then the official can call a common foul as per R4-19-2.There certainly is a third choice.

You're trying to change the original meaning of your second sentence above to include excess contact.That is not mentioned anywhere in there.The reference that you are trying to use on P69 is labelled "excess swinginging of arms/elbows",and isn't applicable when the contact doesn't fit in that category.How could you assess a common foul in one case when a player who has the ball commits it,and then say a completely similar act can't be called a common foul if a player without the ball commits it? Riddle me that one,Batman!
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