[mbyron]

OK, I think I've found a way to explain this situation. Start with "first touching." According to 2-16-6, "Game situations which produce results somewhat similar to penalties, but which are not classified as fouls are: disqualification of a player, first touching of a kick by K and forfeiture of a game." First touching produces "results somewhat similar to penalties," so how exactly is first touching similar?

Now think of a completely different case. Ordinary running play: A33 runs up the middle, and during the run B55 holds.

Stop right there and notice something about the play: no matter what happens for the rest of the down, B will NOT be next to put the ball in play. Even if A fumbles and turns it over, the foul by B means that B is not entitled to possession on the next down.

So if A fumbles and B recovers, A will accept the penalty and replay the down. Now change the case a little: what if A fouls too? That would give us a double foul, the penalties offset, and we would replay the down. A retains possession no matter what, once B fouls.

First touching by K is similar to a foul by B in this respect. K has kicked the ball and thus turned over possession to R (that's the rationale behind PSK fouls). If there is first touching by K, then R retains possession no matter what else happens during the down. That's exactly what Reddings says, and it's just like penalties by the team without possession during a non-kicking down.

So what the heck is the rule saying? It's pointing out another similarity to penalties. Go back to B55's hold. The penalty for that entitles A to a choice: accept the yardage from the basic spot, or take the result of the play.

Will A always have that choice? No, they lose it if they foul. In that case, they lose the right to take the ball 10 yards from the basic spot.

First touching is exactly the same. After first touching by K, R has the right to take the ball at the spot of first touching or to take the result of the play.

Does R always have that choice? No, they lose that right if they foul after the kick (either PSK or post-possession). That's exactly like a double foul.

The main difference between first touching by K and a foul is that first touching never offsets, so we don't replay the down. Otherwise it functions like a penalty, and the rule about "ignoring" first touching concerns the choice by R to take the ball there. It does not imply that first touching goes away completely.

Sorry for the long post, but the rule makes sense and Reddings has the right interp of it.