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I thought I was sure, but now I'm not
Both batted balls bounced off the ground and hit the batter in fair territory (the second might have been over the fair portion of the batter's box) while he still had a foot in contact with the batter's box and before the other foot had touched entirely out of the batter's box. I thought the rule was that a batted ball, including a ball that has hit the ground already, hitting a batter still in the box (defined as no foot on the ground outside of the box) is foul. I would have called both foul, but I think now I might have been wrong.
OBR 6.05(g): "A batter is out when his fair ball touches him before touching a fielder."
OBR 2.00: "A foul ball is a batted ball . . .that , while on or over foul territory, touches the person of a . . . player . . .."
I don't have my J/R with me. What is the MLBUM ruling on this? Does the position of the batter's feet matter at all?
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