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Old Thu Aug 06, 2009, 10:48am
AtlUmpSteve AtlUmpSteve is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Big Slick View Post
However, the BR is also declared out for the act of interference, and no run can score when the BR doesn't reach first base, no?
Two responses.

One, the BR didn't commit any act of interference; R2 did. R2 is out, and BR is awarded first base, UNLESS the umpire judges an intentional act of interference. So, not an automatic ruling; and many players could make the interference look unintentional, or at least put intent in doubt.

Two, to prove the original question, even if you add the judgment of intentional interference, simply change the play to no outs. R1 scores when there is interference on a fly ball.
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