I'm struggling with this one. Can someone explain?
Does the Run Count?
R1 on 3B, R2 on 2B and R3 on 1B with two outs, B6 hits a shot into right centerfield. R1, R2 and R3 score before B6 is thrown out at 2B for the third out. F5 yells that R2 missed 3B and ask for a fourth-out appeal. The umpire rules R2 out on a fourth-out appeal and declares the force back into effect and no runs score.
Ruling umpire’s ruling was incorrect, here’s why.
The fourth-out appeal is correct because Rule 5, Section 5, C stipulates, “no run shall score if a “fourth out” is the result of an appeal of a base missed or left too soon on a runner who has scored.” Therefore R2 can be properly appealed and called out as the umpire ruled.
However, the force out is incorrect. Rule 1, Definitions, Force Out: An out which may be made only when a runner loses the right to the base that the runner is occupying because the batter becomes a batter-runner, and before the batter-runner or trailing runner has been put out.” Also according to Rule 5 Section 5B [1] “No run shall score if the third out of the inning is the result of a batter-runner being called out prior to reaching first base or any other runner forced out due to the batter becoming a batter-runner. On an appeal play, the force out is determined when the appeal is made, not when the infraction occurred.” On this play the force would not be in Effect, R2 would be called out on the fourth out appeal and R1 would score.
I don't know that the defense would request a "fourth out appeal" necessarily, but rather just that the runner from 2B missed 3B. I can't reconcile that this wouldn't still be considered a force play.
I'm pretty sure that if the BR missed 1B in the above scenario and the defense appealed that, the BR would be out and no runs would score. But now I'm having doubts about that.
Thanx for any clarifications on the clarification.
Ted