Quote:
Originally posted by dblref
I must be mis-reading this. When A1 "alights" on one foot, why doesn't this become his/her pivot foot? A1 then jumps off that foot and makes a jump stop. A1 has lifted the pivot foot and returned it to the floor without shooting. Would this not be a travel? What am I missing, other than needing a cup of coffee?
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Check out Rule 4-43 Art.2 b.2 and Art.4a
dblref...Don't you "alight" on at least one foot when you are "driving" to the basket for a lay up and have picked up your dribble? Maybe it will help to look at it that way.
RD
[Edited by RookieDude on Nov 8th, 2002 at 07:59 AM]