Thread: Women's bonus ?
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Old Tue Nov 05, 2002, 01:33pm
hawkk hawkk is offline
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Join Date: Aug 2002
Posts: 152
I understand the rationale for the rule in general -- it's a great improvement, IMHO.

Maybe I'm wrong about the oddity, but here's where I think it is: A1 throws in to A2, who bobbles the ball, then picks it up. As I read the discussion above, if A2 fouls B2 before the ball is touched, no bonus, and if A2 fouls B2 after the ball is picked up, no bonus. BUT if A2 fouls B2 after A1 touches the ball, but before it is controlled by A1, then the bonus applies. One could say that is the consequence of not catching the ball cleanly, or could ignore that gap in time and just call the offensive foul, no bonus. I was curious how folks would handle that situation.
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