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Old Mon Jan 26, 2009, 02:41am
Nevadaref Nevadaref is offline
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Join Date: Nov 2002
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Quote:
Originally Posted by just another ref View Post
IOW, they must make something up? If it is not covered by rules, why could they not penalize both, like when, you know, that other thing happens. Both officials signaled a foul. I have read where this is considered binding.
The problem is when this happens while the offending team has five team fouls and neither foul involves a try for goal. The two fouls would be #6 and #7 of the half for that team, so which opposing player gets to attempt the 1&1? There is simply NO way to decide.
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