Quote:
Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA
My "position" is that IF the umpire kills the play due to INT, the ball is foul at that point if over foul territory. Since I don't believe you can have INT based on a presumption that a ball "could" have evolved into a fair ball if allowed to continue to roll/bounce, I would have nothing on this play unless the R/BR did something unsportsmanlike and then there would be an ejection, but on INT.
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Again that is what I am struggling with why do I kill the play when there is contact? if the ball is in foul territory we have no INT. So killing it for INT is not really a valid thing to do. I'm just thinking here not argueing it just seems wierd to me to kill the play for INT, when I kill the play the balls location determines whether it is fair or foul at that point, so the ball is foul so it is just a foul ball so the INT is removed. I can follow that logic and the rule base that would get me there. But I am foggy as to the proper mechanics to perform this action on the field.