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As much as I hate to admit it I see what Irish is getting at. The rules say that you are entitled to advance without liability to be put out. Ok, so R1 is not being put out, but question is when does the inning end? When the 3rd out is obtained...so if R2 is put out prior to R1 touching their base they are entitled to advance to without liability to be put out....why would they be allowed to continue to advance, and score AFTER the inning is over?
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