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Originally Posted by TwoBits
May want to check if this is some sort of local league rule. One rec league I do states the runner may only steal home, "...if the pitcher misses the throwback or a play is attempted on the runner." Unfortunately, every plate meeting begins with how am I going to interpret that. Some umpires are allowing a steal when the ball goes past the pitcher and some allow a steal when the pitcher merely drops the ball. Some umpires allow a steal when the pitcher or catcher feints a throw or runs toward the runner, some do not.
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Thanks for the replies. I guess the question is, why does a dead ball have no effect on the baserunner's actions? If there's no overthrow to the pitcher (which would obviously allow the runner to advance home), why would a ball made dead by the pitcher not have the effect of forcing runners back to their plates? It seems that if the ball is not dead when returned to the rubber, all runners with bases loaded could simply ignore the dead ball and turn their fair leads (they did not leave the base early) into advanced bases and the pitcher would be left with an unmanageable defensive situation.