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Originally Posted by bobbybanaduck
it is unoccupied, but, F1 is allowed to throw there (even though it is unoccupied) if it is for the purpose of making a play. the comment is saying that, if he is making a play, then he can turn and throw as long as said turn is uninterrupted. the entire rule has to be taken into consideration in order for any of it to make any sense. what, specifically, are you trying to figure out?
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Right: the point of (b) is to emphasize that F1 cannot start to throw to 1B, see that the runner has taken off, and then throw to 2B to get him. That would be a balk.
If he is throwing to 2B to make a play on an advancing runner, he must step and throw directly to 2B without interruption. This clause does not contravene any other provision of the balk rule.