Quote:
|
Originally Posted by Dave Reed
NFHS 6.2
ART. 4 . . . Balk. If there is a runner or runners, any of the following acts by a pitcher while he is touching the pitcher’s plate is a balk:
b. ...... throwing or feinting to any unoccupied base when it is not an attempt to put out or drive back a runner;
And a caseplay:
6.2.4 SITUATION A: With R1 on third and R2 on first, F1 stretches and comes set. He then swings his entire nonpivot foot behind the back edge of the pitcher’s
plate, steps toward second and (a) throws the ball to second in an attempt to retire R2, who is advancing there or (b) feints throw to second to drive R2 back to first, who has neither attempted nor feinted an advance to second. RULING: In (a), this is legal. In (b), it is a balk.
|
Thanks, Dave.
Bob, I don't read this case play as supporting your contention that a feint by R1 is sufficient to legitimize a throw to 2B. The legal play in the case is one where R1 is advancing.
Although option (b) seems to leave open the possibility that a feinted throw to 2B might be legal if R1 had feinted an advance, the principle in the rule of "driving back the runner" makes sense only if he's advancing, not if he's feinting.
Absent a case (or authoritative interp) explicitly permitting a throw/feint to 2B after only a feinted advance by R1, I'm inclined to read this rule as consistent with OBR.
Have you actually called this in a game? Ordinarily I have no problem with FED being different from OBR, since I can usually figure out a FED-specific rationale for the rule. This one makes no sense to me.