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My first thought is an (leaving aside the valid point regarding the apparently missed PC calls) intentional foul. B1 is intentionally tripping A1.
That said, I understand the point about the rule not really having a provision for a foul here. B1 is stationary and not holding an illegal position. My only thought is the "purpose and intent" clause, not allowing a player to gain an unfair advantage not intended by the rules. I can't help but think of this move as an unfair tactic gaining an unfair advantage by tripping a "blind" opponent.
I'm still not sure my initial thought is correct.
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