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Originally Posted by CO ump
I'm in agreement as to not call this but as devils advocate:
When the batter bailed he also had no intent on swinging. Yet when the ball hit the bat we all agree it's a foul.
In this situation why is intent ignored for one rule and applied for another?
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I don't believe it is ignored, it is just not explained one way or the other in the rules. I believe it states that the batter is out if he hits the ball while (depending on the code) standing out of the box. Therefore intent seems to be a reasonable method to resolve that which is not interpreted for us.
In the case of a foul ball, it pretty black and white. Did it hit the bat or not?
Intent means nothing here.