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Originally Posted by canadaump6
8.05 Comment: b) With a runner on first base the pitcher may make a complete turn, without hesitating toward first, and throw to second. This is not to be interpreted as throwing to an unnoccupied base.
Some umpires in my association weren't sure what this wording implies. Does it mean that the pitcher can start his motion and wheel to second regardless of whether R1 is stealing? Or does R1 have to be stealing before he throws to second base?
One would think that every time there is R1, 2 out and a 3-2 count, the pitcher would simply do his leg kick, then whirl around and throw out R1 at 2nd, but I never see this done.
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Think of it a F1 making a legal move to 1st, R1 takes off as F1 is in the process. As long as F1 continues to follow R1 around without any stop or hesitation, F1 may make a complete turn to 2nd & fire. The rule was really designed for the RHP and it really looks awkward when attempted. In almost 30 years, I have yet to have a RHP perform this move without me balking him. They always seem to have to hesitate half way through the move. The LHP has no problem with this because he is facing R1 all the time, so to spin with him is no problem.