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Old Sun May 11, 2008, 10:08pm
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Adam Adam is offline
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Join Date: Jan 2003
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I don't think it's necessary. It's pretty well understood that "intent" is not required, by rule, for an intentional foul. Nor does the presence of intent preclude a common foul, by rule. Essentially, it's a discussion of semantics.

That said, just because it's not necessary or helpful doesn't mean it won't happen anyway.
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