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Originally Posted by greymule
This has been a point of contention on previous threads, but unless one runner passes the other on the basepaths, I don't have a violation. To me, merely running past 3B down the LF line after returning (with another runner on 3B) doesn't create a passed-runner situation.
To stretch the point a bit: Abel on 1B. Baker hits a shot that F3 traps 15 feet from 1B toward 2B. Seeing F3 with the ball and wanting to avoid the easy double play by delaying the tag, Abel retreats to 1B. Baker then overruns 1B down the RF line. Unless Baker actually moves toward 2B, he has not passed Abel.
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I can't see how this analogy would cleanly apply, though. You're referring to a base that can legally be overrun without putting the runner in jeopardy (unless they attempt to advance). 1B and HP are unique in this regards. What we're discussing, however, is a base where an overrun places the runner in jeopardy. The runners have fewer options in this sitch.
If R2 is standing on 3B, and R1 reverses his direction and overruns 3B (going towards the outfield), then I would interpret that as R1 being passed by R2. R1 is now behind 3B, and R2 is standing on top of it.