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This has been a point of contention on previous threads, but unless one runner passes the other on the basepaths, I don't have a violation. To me, merely running past 3B down the LF line after returning (with another runner on 3B) doesn't create a passed-runner situation.
To stretch the point a bit: Abel on 1B. Baker hits a shot that F3 traps 15 feet from 1B toward 2B. Seeing F3 with the ball and wanting to avoid the easy double play by delaying the tag, Abel retreats to 1B. Baker then overruns 1B down the RF line. Unless Baker actually moves toward 2B, he has not passed Abel.
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greymule
More whiskey—and fresh horses for my men!
Roll Tide!
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