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Originally Posted by SanDiegoSteve
Really? What if the ball was over the plate when it made contact with the bat? If the ball hits the bat first and then the hands, it's not automatically a foul ball, unless you're playing Calvin Ball. It's irrelevant that it subsequently happened to touch the batter's hands. The batters hands are not considered under Rule 2:00 FOUL BALL to be an object in foul territory, or a player or umpire.
If I'm the manager, and my batter hits the ball with the metal (or wood) part of the bat, and it is in fair territory, and you call it foul, I going to be in your face arguing. It's either a dead-ball strike if it hits his hands first, or a fair or foul ball depending on where the ball settles or is touched by a fielder if it hits the bat first.
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Steve,
I know you've been "away" for a while, but come on. It's a foul ball. What, you going to call the batter out for interference under 7.09(k)? Have fun with that.
JM
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Finally, be courteous, impartial and firm, and so compel respect from all.
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