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Originally Posted by Rich Ives
Example: R3 heading home, a tag play is evident HOWEVER, the ball now sails over F2's head or gets by F2. According to the way the rule is written R3 MUST slide even though there is no need to.
How can a tag play be evident if F2 doesn't have the ball?
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The definition of evident is not "F2 has the ball". By evident I interpret to mean the old FED terminolgy "imminent in nature" If the USSSA houserule did mean "A fileder has possession of the ball" then that's how they should have worded it.
Also, a runner does not have only 3 choices as was mentioned in the USSSA rule. They can come in "standing up", however, if you go by their "house rule" that is not one of the options.
Personally (and FED is now doing this somewhat) is go by the NCAA ruling concerning collisions. Collision un-avoidabe - play on Collission avoidable then penalize. IMO, FED will also adopt this type language in the years to come.
You cannot take "contact" out of baseball.
Pete Booth