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Originally Posted by BigSteve56
At the risk of being bombarded with all sorts of criticism, I'll say it anyway. I'm also not trying to stir up trouble. First of all, ties do in fact exist whether or not you want to believe it. The ball reaching F3 and the B/R touching the base at the same time (a TIE) are mutually exclusive events meaning one is NOT dependent on the other.
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No one said ties do not exist. They said the "tie goes to the runner myth" does not exists. Is there room for judgement?
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Originally Posted by BigSteve56
Having said that, for an OUT to occur, the ball must reach F3 BEFORE the B/R touches 1B. See 7-4-1f f. after a dropped third strike (see 8-4-1e) or a fair hit, if the ball held by any fielder touches the batter before the batter touches first base; or if any fielder, while holding the ball in his grasp, touches first base or touches first base with the ball before the batter-runner touches first base: Not at the same time or not after, but BEFORE.
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No one disputes the "before rule" being discussed above. As JM hinted at, there is another rule(s) in the book that is in direct conflict with your statement above. I am surprised you fail to mention it, as self appointed rulebook interpreter. You may know a bit about rule 7 and the runner, but why do you fail to play defense?
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Originally Posted by BigSteve56
Having said that, if the ball and the B/R reach 1B at the same time, meaning that to the umpire's vision, he cannot perceive any difference between the two, you have a PHYSICAL as opposed to a rule book, tie. The rule book does not address the word tie, so from that perspective the statement is true. TIE in the normal sense of the word for ages has meant a simultaneous arrival of the ball and the B/R at the base. Nobody can argue that, we've all heard it since we were kids. So, if you follow the logic of a tie and combine it with the written rule, a tie does in fact go to the runner because the ball did not arrive at 1B BEFORE the runner touched 1B.
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If A in bold is true, then B in bold cannot be true. Your statement crumbles under the weight of your logic. The only thing you have proven, is this blather of intelligent form defies common sense. Nobody can argue against that! You do not understand it. Please let me know if the meaning of at the same time is before the ball arrives or after the ball arrives? As you stated, the ball did not arrive before the runner. So did the ball arrive after the runner? You stated there was no tie in the rulebook. Please explain why you incorrectly ruled that the runner was safe? The best you can hope for is "I can't decide, it was a tie, so bat again." That doesn't even pass for minority opinion.
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Originally Posted by BigSteve56
All right guys, have at it. But before you do, be prepared to back up your opinions with fact. Someone else's rule book or OPINION doesn't qualify.
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Gee, handcuffed and I still kicked your ***. Crawl back under your rock. Someone boo this guy! 1,2,3 BOOOOO!