[mbyron]

Originally Posted by Lapopez

Instead of a gapper, it was a straight forward base hit in which there was no chance of B1 trying for or achieving second base. Nevertheless, as you wrote, as he rounds first base, he is obstructed by F3. Is that an automatic award of second base even though, had there been no obstruction, the runner would have achieved no further than first base, in the umpire's opinion?

Originally Posted by NFHS.org

SITUATION 14: With a lazy, one-hop single to the right fielder, the batter rounds first base with no intention or action of advancing to second base. As he takes a few easy strides past first base, he contacts the first baseman who is partially in his path. RULING: Since the batter was making no attempt to advance to second base, the first baseman did not hinder him or change the pattern of the play. As a result, obstruction would not be called. Any benefit of the doubt would be given to the batter-runner if there was a question in the covering umpire's mind. (3-22-1)

The answer to your question is: incidental contact in this case would not be ruled obstruction, so the question of what the award is does not arise.